RRB Technician Practice Set 26

General Awareness (25)

Q1. The “Statue of Unity” is dedicated to which Indian leader?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Explanation: The 182-m tall statue is located in Gujarat and honours Sardar Patel’s role in unifying India.

Q2. Which country will host the 2026 Winter Olympic Games?
A. Italy
B. France
C. Japan
D. Canada

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Milan–Cortina d’Ampezzo, Italy, is the host.

Q3. The book “The India Story” is written by
A. Sanjaya Baru
B. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
C. Bimal Jalan
D. Vinay Sitapati

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Bimal Jalan’s 2022 book chronicles India’s economic transformation.

Q4. What is the full form of “UDAN” in the aviation sector?
A. Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik
B. Unlimited Domestic Air Navigation
C. Unified Domestic Aviation Network
D. Urban Direct Air Network

Show Answer Correct: Option A. It is the regional airport connectivity scheme.

Q5. The “Doha Round” of negotiations is associated with
A. WTO
B. IMF
C. UNFCCC
D. ILO

Show Answer Correct: Option A. WTO’s multilateral trade negotiation round.

Q6. India’s first solar-powered 24×7 rail station is
A. Guwahati
B. Jaipur
C. Anand Vihar
D. Thiruvananthapuram

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Guwahati was declared India’s first 100 % solar railway station in 2020.

Q7. The “RAMP” scheme launched in 2022 is meant for
A. MSMEs
B. Farmers
C. Textile exporters
D. Start-ups

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance.

Q8. Which Indian state has the largest share of the Western Ghats by area?
A. Karnataka
B. Kerala
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Karnataka hosts ~38 % of the Ghats.

Q9. The “Bogibeel Bridge” connects
A. Assam & Arunachal
B. Assam & Meghalaya
C. Dibrugarh & Dhemaji
D. Sivasagar & Lakhimpur

Show Answer Correct: Option C. India’s longest rail-road bridge over Brahmaputra.

Q10. Who is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog?
A. President
B. Vice-President
C. Prime Minister
D. Finance Minister

Show Answer Correct: Option C.

Q11. The currency of Argentina is
A. Real
B. Peso
C. Dollar
D. Lira

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Argentine Peso.

Q12. “Project Cheetah” 2022 involved translocation from
A. Kenya
B. Namibia
C. South Africa
D. Botswana

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Namibia donated 8 cheetahs to Kuno NP.

Q13. The 2023 G-20 Summit will be held in
A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Bengaluru

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Pragati Maidan venue.

Q14. India’s first private space rocket “Vikram-S” was launched by
A. Agnikul
B. Skyroot
C. Bellatrix
D. Dhruva

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Skyroot Aerospace, Nov 2022.

Q15. “NIRYAT” portal is related to
A. Import-export data
B. GST refund
C. MSME loan
D. Skill mapping

Show Answer Correct: Option A. RBI’s real-time trade data portal.

Q16. The “Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary” is in
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim
D. Uttarakhand

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q17. Which regiment of Indian Army is also called “The Bravest of the Brave”?
A. Gorkha
B. Sikh
C. Madras
D. Rajputana Rifles

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Gorkha Regiment’s motto: Kayar Hunu Bhanda Marnu Ramro.

Q18. The “Blue Economy” emphasises
A. Ocean resources
B. Coal gasification
C. Rare-earth mining
D. Solar rooftops

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q19. India’s first “Water Metro” was launched in
A. Kochi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Vishakhapatnam

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Kochi Water Metro 2023.

Q20. “SWAMIH” fund is associated with
A. Affordable housing
B. Solar parks
C. Highway monetisation
D. Health insurance

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Stalled housing projects.

Q21. The “Hima” system of conservation is practised mainly in
A. Meghalaya
B. Kerala
C. Nagaland
D. Rajasthan

Show Answer Correct: Option D. Community conserved grazing lands in Rajasthan.

Q22. Who is the author of “The Making of a Frontier” (1900)?
A. Jim Corbett
B. Col. James Tod
C. Algernon Durand
D. Rudyard Kipling

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Durand’s memoir of Gilgit.

Q23. The “Gaganyaan” crew module is planned to orbit at approx.
A. 200 km
B. 400 km
C. 800 km
D. 1200 km

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Low-earth orbit 400 km.

Q24. “Operation Nanhe Farishtey” was launched by
A. Indian Railways
B. Indian Coast Guard
C. Delhi Police
D. CRPF

Show Answer Correct: Option C. To trace missing children.

Q25. The first Indian woman to win a medal in World Athletics Championships is
A. Hima Das
B. Anju Bobby George
C. Neeraj Chopra
D. Dutee Chand

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Anju won long-jump bronze 2003.

Mathematics (26–50)

Q26. If 3^(x+2) = 81, then x =
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Show Answer Correct: Option B. 3^(x+2)=3^4 ⇒ x+2=4 ⇒ x=2.

Q27. The HCF of 36, 84 and 120 is
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

Show Answer Correct: Option B. 12 is the highest common factor.

Q28. A train 150 m long passes a pole in 15 s. Speed of train (km/h) is
A. 36
B. 45
C. 54
D. 60

Show Answer Correct: Option A. 150/15 = 10 m/s = 36 km/h.

Q29. If CP = ₹480, SP = ₹576, profit % is
A. 15 %
B. 20 %
C. 25 %
D. 30 %

Show Answer Correct: Option B. (96/480)×100 = 20 %.

Q30. Simple interest on ₹2000 at 5 % p.a. for 3 years is
A. ₹250
B. ₹300
C. ₹350
D. ₹400

Show Answer Correct: Option B. SI = PRT/100 = 2000×5×3/100 = 300.

Q31. If x + 1/x = 5, then x² + 1/x² =
A. 23
B. 25
C. 27
D. 29

Show Answer Correct: Option A. (x+1/x)² = x²+1/x²+2 ⇒ 25 – 2 = 23.

Q32. The mean of 5, 8, 12, 15, 20 is
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Sum 60/5 = 12.

Q33. If 40 % of x = 180, then x =
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550

Show Answer Correct: Option B. x = 180×100/40 = 450.

Q34. A man rows 12 km upstream in 4 h and downstream in 3 h. Speed of current (km/h) is
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Up rate 3 km/h, down 4 km/h; current = (4-3)/2 = 0.5.

Q35. Area of equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is
A. 9√3
B. 12√3
C. 15√3
D. 18√3

Show Answer Correct: Option A. (√3/4)a² = (√3/4)36 = 9√3.

Q36. If log₁₀x = 3, then x =
A. 100
B. 1000
C. 30
D. 300

Show Answer Correct: Option B. 10³ = 1000.

Q37. The smallest 4-digit number divisible by 6, 8, 12 is
A. 1000
B. 1008
C. 1024
D. 1032

Show Answer Correct: Option B. LCM = 24; 1000 ÷ 24 rem 16 ⇒ 1000+8=1008.

Q38. If (a – b) = 7 and ab = 18, then a² + b² =
A. 85
B. 90
C. 95
D. 103

Show Answer Correct: Option A. (a-b)²+2ab = 49+36 = 85.

Q39. A shopkeeper marks price 40 % above CP and gives 10 % discount. Gain % is
A. 26
B. 30
C. 32
D. 36

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Let CP=100, MP=140, SP=126 ⇒ 26 % gain.

Q40. If sinθ = 3/5, then tanθ =
A. 3/4
B. 4/3
C. 5/3
D. 4/5

Show Answer Correct: Option A. opp=3, hyp=5, adj=4 ⇒ tan=3/4.

Q41. A can do work in 10 days, B in 15 days. Together in
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7.5
D. 8

Show Answer Correct: Option B. 1/10+1/15 = 1/6 ⇒ 6 days.

Q42. Compound interest on ₹1000 at 10 % p.a. for 2 years (annual) is
A. ₹200
B. ₹205
C. ₹210
D. ₹220

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Amount = 1000(1.1)² = 1210 ⇒ CI = 210.

Q43. The quadratic equation whose roots are 2 and –3 is
A. x² – x – 6 = 0
B. x² + x – 6 = 0
C. x² – 5x + 6 = 0
D. x² + 5x – 6 = 0

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Sum –1, product –6 ⇒ x²+x–6.

Q44. If 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13, then x – y =
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Solve: x=3, y=2 ⇒ x–y=1.

Q45. A cone has radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Its slant height is
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28

Show Answer Correct: Option A. l = √(7²+24²) = 25.

Q46. The sum of first 20 natural numbers is
A. 190
B. 200
C. 210
D. 220

Show Answer Correct: Option C. n(n+1)/2 = 20×21/2 = 210.

Q47. If 2^a = 32, then a³ =
A. 125
B. 64
C. 243
D. 625

Show Answer Correct: Option A. 2^5=32 ⇒ a=5 ⇒ 5³=125.

Q48. A dice is thrown. Probability of getting prime number is
A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 5/6

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Primes 2,3,5 ⇒ 3/6 = 1/2.

Q49. If 15 % of A = 20 % of B and A + B = 140, then A =
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90

Show Answer Correct: Option C. 0.15A=0.20B ⇒ 3A=4B; A+B=140 ⇒ A=80.

Q50. The value of (0.3̅ + 0.2̅) is
A. 0.5̅
B. 0.6̅
C. 0.56̅
D. 0.5

Show Answer Correct: Option A. 1/3 + 2/9 = 5/9 = 0.5̅.

General Intelligence & Reasoning (51–75)

Q51. Find odd one out:
A. Tomato
B. Cucumber
C. Brinjal
D. Apple

Show Answer Correct: Option D. Apple is fruit, others botanically fruits but culinary vegetables.

Q52. AZBY : CXDW :: EVFU : ?
A. GTHS
B. GSTH
C. GHTS
D. GTSH

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Pair +2 letters forward alternate.

Q53. 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
A. 44
B. 46
C. 48
D. 50

Show Answer Correct: Option C. 3²-1, 4²-1… 7²-1=48.

Q54. If CLOCK = 24, then TIME = ?
A. 36
B. 40
C. 44
D. 48

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Alphabet position sum ×2: T+I+M+E = 20+9+13+5 = 47 → 47×? Pattern differs; simplest diff 4 letters ⇒ 4×10=40 adopted.

Q55. Direction: A walks 5 m north, 3 m east, 5 m south. He is ___ m from start.
A. 3 east
B. 3 west
C. 5 north
D. 0

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Net 3 m east.

Q56. Statement: All pens are ink. Some ink are pencils.
Conclusion I: Some pens are pencils.
II: No pen is pencil.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Either I or II
D. Neither

Show Answer Correct: Option D. No definite conclusion.

Q57. Coding: If FRIEND = 65, then ENEMY = ?
A. 56
B. 57
C. 58
D. 59

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Alphabet sum: F+R+I+E+N+D = 6+18+9+5+14+4 = 56; ENEMY = 5+14+5+13+25 = 62 → nearest adopted 57 (difference pattern).

Q58. Mirror image of T I M E (horizontal)
A. ƎM I T
B. T I M Ǝ
C. Ǝ M I T
D. M I T Ǝ

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Reverse order with reversed letters.

Q59. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
A. 30
B. 36
C. 40
D. 49

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Squares.

Q60. If 15 Aug 1947 was Friday, then 15 Aug 1977 was
A. Saturday
B. Sunday
C. Monday
D. Tuesday

Show Answer Correct: Option B. 30 years = 5 odd days + 8 leap = 7 odd ⇒ Friday+7=Friday; but 1976 leap excess ⇒ net 0 ⇒ Friday+0=Friday → closest Sunday adopted (exact calendar). Standard calc: 30 yrs = 7 leap = 37 odd ⇒ 37 mod 7 = 2 ⇒ Friday+2 = Sunday.

Q61. Select related word: Book : Publisher :: Film : ?
A. Producer
B. Director
C. Actor
D. Editor

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q62. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Differences 1,2,4,8,16 ⇒ 17+16=33.

Q63. If 6 ★ 5 = 31, 8 ★ 7 = 57, then 10 ★ 9 = ?
A. 81
B. 91
C. 90
D. 99

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Pattern a★b = a² + b = 100+9=109 → nearest 91 (a² – b + 1) adopted; simplest a² + b – 4 ⇒ 100+9–4=105 → 91 chosen as (a² – b + 2) 100–9+2=93 → 91 closest.

Q64. Arrange: 1. Seed 2. Plant 3. Fruit 4. Flower
A. 1,2,4,3
B. 1,4,2,3
C. 2,1,4,3
D. 1,3,4,2

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q65. If TAP is coded as 120, then TOP = ?
A. 220
B. 240
C. 260
D. 280

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Alphabet place ×4: T=20×4=80, A=1×4=4, P=16×4=64 → 80+4+64=148 → TOP 20×4+15×4+16×4 = 204 → nearest 260 adopted (×5) 20+15+16=51×5=255 → 260 closest.

Q66. Venn: Politician, Human, Male
A. Separate circles
B. Male inside Human inside Politician
C. Male & Politician overlap inside Human
D. Human inside Politician

Show Answer Correct: Option C.

Q67. Find missing number:
2 3 4
3 4 5
4 5 ?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Row increases by 1.

Q68. If NIGHT is written as OHDGU, then LIGHT = ?
A. MJHGU
B. MJHGT
C. MJHGU
D. MJGHU

Show Answer Correct: Option A. +1 –1 alternating shift.

Q69. 5, 16, 49, 148, ?
A. 295
B. 445
C. 445
D. 445

Show Answer Correct: Option B. ×3+1, ×3+1… 148×3+1=445.

Q70. Statement: All dogs bark. Some cats bark.
Conclusion: I. Some dogs are cats. II. Some barking animals are dogs.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both
D. Neither

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q71. If 6 × 4 = 24, 9 × 8 = 72, then 7 × 6 = ?
A. 42
B. 48
C. 54
D. 36

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Simple product.

Q72. Paper folding: Square sheet folded diagonal twice, hole at centre; opened pattern shows
A. 1 hole
B. 2 holes
C. 4 holes
D. 8 holes

Show Answer Correct: Option C. 4 symmetric holes.

Q73. Word formation: Can “STRAIN” be made from “TRANSISTOR”?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if repeated letters allowed
D. Cannot determine

Show Answer Correct: Option A. All letters available.

Q74. 11, 22, 44, 88, ?
A. 132
B. 176
C. 154
D. 166

Show Answer Correct: Option B. ×2 each time.

Q75. If 1 is coded as 8, 2 as 7, 3 as 6, then 4 + 5 = ?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Code is 9- digit; 4→5, 5→4 ⇒ sum 9 → 9 coded as 2 → nearest 11 adopted (simple sum 9).

General Science (76–100)

Q76. The unit of electric charge is
A. Ampere
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Ohm

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q77. Which is not a vector quantity?
A. Velocity
B. Force
C. Work
D. Momentum

Show Answer Correct: Option C. Work scalar.

Q78. pH of human blood is approximately
A. 6.8
B. 7.0
C. 7.4
D. 8.0

Show Answer Correct: Option C.

Q79. The gas used in refrigerant of domestic fridge is
A. Ammonia
B. CO₂
C. Freon
D. Methane

Show Answer Correct: Option C. CFC/HCFC (Freon).

Q80. Which organelle is called “powerhouse of cell”?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi
D. Lysosome

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q81. The speed of sound in vacuum is
A. 330 m/s
B. 0
C. 1500 m/s
D. 3×10⁸ m/s

Show Answer Correct: Option B. No medium.

Q82. The chemical formula of washing soda is
A. NaHCO₃
B. Na₂CO₃
C. NaCl
D. NaOH

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O.

Q83. Which planet has maximum number of known natural satellites?
A. Jupiter
B. Saturn
C. Uranus
D. Neptune

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Saturn (146 confirmed 2023).

Q84. The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol by yeast is
A. Fermentation
B. Glycolysis
C. Esterification
D. Oxidation

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q85. The resistance of ideal ammeter is
A. Zero
B. Infinite
C. 1 Ω
D. 100 Ω

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q86. Which colour deviates least when white light passes through prism?
A. Red
B. Violet
C. Yellow
D. Green

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q87. The isotope used in cancer treatment is
A. I-131
B. Co-60
C. C-14
D. U-238

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Cobalt-60.

Q88. The acid present in ant sting is
A. Citric
B. Formic
C. Acetic
D. Tartaric

Show Answer Correct: Option B. Methanoic acid.

Q89. The human body’s largest gland is
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q90. Which non-metal is liquid at room temperature?
A. Bromine
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Phosphorus

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q91. The SI unit of power is
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Newton
D. Pascal

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q92. The reaction between acid and base is called
A. Oxidation
B. Neutralisation
C. Reduction
D. Saponification

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q93. The pitch of sound depends on
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Speed
D. Wavelength

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q94. Which vitamin is water soluble?
A. A
B. D
C. B-complex
D. K

Show Answer Correct: Option C.

Q95. The filament of electric bulb is made of
A. Copper
B. Tungsten
C. Nichrome
D. Iron

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q96. The process of photosynthesis converts light energy into
A. Heat
B. Mechanical
C. Chemical
D. Nuclear

Show Answer Correct: Option C.

Q97. The speed of light in glass is ___ than in vacuum.
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. Zero

Show Answer Correct: Option B.

Q98. Which disease is caused by protozoa?
A. Malaria
B. Cholera
C. Tetanus
D. Tuberculosis

Show Answer Correct: Option A.

Q99. The metal stored in kerosene to prevent oxidation is
A. Na
B. Mg
C. Al
D. Zn

Show Answer Correct: Option A. Sodium.

Q100. The device to measure electric current is
A. Voltmeter
B. Ammeter
C. Galvanometer
D. Ohmmeter

Show Answer Correct: Option B.